So, I had an interesting discussion with reflectionephemeral over at Poison Your Mind. We were discussing the meaning of income disparity here in America and then around the world.
I acknowledge that such disparity is increasing; the gap between the rich and the poor seems to be getting wider and wider all the time. And America is much less income level mobile. That is, it is more difficult here in America to move from one income bracket to another than it is in say, Europe.
However, I make my point that while the gap may be larger, the rich may indeed be getting a larger slice of the pie, that the slice the poor DO get is much bigger than they otherwise would.
In my conversation, I envisioned two scenarios:
A. On a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 being poor and 10 being rich, the poorest averaged a 2 while the rich averaged a 3.
B. On a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 being poor and 10 being rich, the poorest averaged a 4 while the rich averaged a 9.
In world B, the poor earn MORE than the rich in world A. However, in world B, the rich are wealthier in relation to the poor in world A.
Which would you pick?
